HEMATOLOGY QUIZ

Question 1

Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

According to the developmental timeline, which location ceases to be a major site of haematopoiesis around the time of birth?

Question 1Answer
a.

Bone marrow

b.

Liver

c.

Yolk sac

d.

Sternum

Question 2

Correct
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A haematopoietic stem cell (HSC) gives rise to two main progenitor cell lines. Which of the following cells originates from the common lymphoid progenitor?

Question 2Answer
a.

Plasma cell

b.

Erythrocyte

c.

Thrombocyte

d.

Neutrophil

Question 3

Correct
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What is the primary trigger for the kidneys to increase the production and release of erythropoietin (EPO)?

Question 3Answer
a.

High blood pressure

b.

Low platelet count

c.

Hypoxia

d.

High white blood cell count

Question 4

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which cytokine is specifically identified as the major regulator of platelet production?

Question 4Answer
a.

Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF)

b.

Interleukin-3 (IL-3)

c.

Thrombopoietin (TPO)

d.

Erythropoietin (EPO)

Question 5

Correct
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Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) has several clinical uses. Which of the following is a primary application for GM-CSF?

Question 5Answer
a.

Accelerating platelet recovery after chemotherapy

b.

Managing anaemia of renal failure

c.

Treating neutropenia after myelosuppressive chemotherapy

d.

Treatment for allergies and asthma

Question 6

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which of the following surface marker combinations is characteristic of a Haematopoietic Stem Cell (HSC)?

Question 6Answer
a.

CD34+CD133+

b.

CD19+

c.

CD41+CD61+

d.

CD14+CD68+

Question 7

Correct
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What is the primary production site of Thrombopoietin (TPO)?

Question 7Answer
a.

Liver

b.

Bone marrow

c.

Kidney

d.

Endothelial cells

Question 8

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Cytokines play a multifaceted role in haematopoiesis. Which of the following is NOT described as a function of cytokines in this process?

Question 8Answer
a.

Promoting commitment to a specific cell lineage

b.

Inducing maturation and differentiation

c.

Transporting oxygen to tissues

d.

Stimulating proliferation and survival of cells

Question 9

Correct
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Which cytokine primarily regulates the production, function, and survival of eosinophils and also enhances basophil function?

Question 9Answer
a.

IL-3

b.

M-CSF

c.

G-CSF

d.

IL-5

Question 10

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

During adulthood, where does the majority of blood cell production (haematopoiesis) occur?

Question 10Answer
a.

In all bones containing red marrow equally

b.

In the flat bones like the vertebrae, sternum and ribs

c.

Exclusively in long bones like the femur and tibia

d.

In the liver and spleen

Question 11

Complete
Marked out of 5.00

There are different subtypes of haemoglobin from embryo to adulthood. Please explain the significance of the different haemoglobin subtypes according to the developmental timeline. 

Answer text Question 11

Haemoglobin is a tetramer with 2 alpha globin chains and 2 beta globin chains. The genes for alpha chain are on chromosome 16 whereas the genes for beta chain are on chromosome 11. These globin genes encode each type of globin subunit. 

The alpha globin is encoded by the HBA1 and HBA2 genes on chromosome 16. The beta globin is encoded by the HBB gene on chromosome 11. Lastly, the delta globin is encoded by the HBD gene on chromosome 11, which forms part of HbA2.

The fetus primarily produces foetal haemoglobin (HbF) during pregnancy. HbF comprises two alpha and two gamma-globin subunits. Foetal haemoglobin which has a stronger oxygen affinity than HbA, allowing efficient oxygen flow from maternal to fetal circulation through the placenta.

While HbA is the most common adult haemoglobin. It comprises two alpha and two beta-globin subunits. It makes up 95-98% of haemoglobin in adults.

Apart from that, HbA2 is a less common adult haemoglobin. It comprises two alpha and two delta-globin subunits. It also makes up 1 to 3% of haemoglobin in adults.


Question 1

Correct
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Which metabolic pathway is primarily responsible for producing ATP for the RBC membrane's ion pumps through anaerobic glycolysis?

Question 1Answer
a.

Methaemoglobin reductase pathway

b.

Hexose monophosphate shunt

c.

Embden Meyerhof pathway

d.

Leubering Rapoport pathway

Question 2

Incorrect
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A defect in the 'horizontal interaction' of the RBC membrane skeleton, which supports structural integrity, is characteristic of which disorder?

Question 2Answer
a.

Hereditary elliptocytosis

b.

Hereditary spherocytosis

c.

Stomatocytosis

d.

Acanthocytosis

Question 3

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The Leubering-Rapoport Shunt produces a molecule that decreases haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen. What is this molecule?

Question 3Answer
a.

Lactate

b.

2,3-DPG

c.

NADPH

d.

ATP

Question 4

Correct
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A deficiency in Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) leads to haemolytic anaemia because it directly impairs the cell's ability to do what?

Question 4Answer
a.

Generating sufficient ATP for membrane pumps

b.

Prevent oxidative stress by regenerating NADPH

c.

Maintain iron in its reduced ferrous (Fe2+) state

d.

Synthesise heme for new haemoglobin molecules

Question 5

Correct
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Which of the following conditions would cause a 'left shift' in the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve, increasing oxygen affinity?

Question 5Answer
a.

Increased body temperature

b.

Increased levels of 2,3-DPG

c.

Carbon monoxide poisoning

d.

Metabolic acidosis

Question 6

Correct
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The adult haemoglobin, Hb A, is a tetramer composed of which globin chains?

Question 6Answer
a.

Two alpha chains and two gamma chains

b.

Two alpha chains and two beta chains

c.

Two zeta chains and two epsilon chains

d.

Two alpha chains and two delta chains

Question 7

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The function of the Methaemoglobin Reductase pathway is crucial for which process?

Question 7Answer
a.

Converting hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) to water (H2O)

b.

Maintaining iron in the ferrous (Fe2+) state

c.

Generating 2,3-DPG to regulate oxygen release

d.

Generating ATP for membrane ion pumps

Question 8

Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

In the process of heme biosynthesis, which enzyme is responsible for inserting the ferrous iron (Fe2+) into protoporphyrin IX to form heme?

Question 8Answer
a.

Porphobilinogen deaminase

b.

ALA synthase

c.

Ferrochelatase

d.

Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

Question 9

Correct
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Which statement accurately describes a key characteristic of the RBC membrane's phospholipid bilayer?

Question 9Answer
a.

It is freely permeable to large proteins and ions

b.

It lacks cholesterol

c.

Peripheral proteins are deeply embedded within the lipid layers

d.

It has an asymmetric distribution of phospholipids

Question 10

Correct
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During RBC destruction, the heme portion of hemoglobin is broken down. The iron (Fe2+) is recycled, and the remaining porphyrin ring is converted into what sequence of pigments?

Question 10Answer
a.

Heme > Urobilinogen > Stercobilin 

b.

Bilirubin > Urobilinogen > Biliverdin

c.

Heme > biliverdin > bilirubin > urobilinogen

d.

Bilirubin > biliverdin > Urobilinogen

Question 11

Complete
Marked out of 5.00

Describe the pathogenesis of G6PD deficiency using antimalarial drug as an example. 

Answer text Question 11

G6PD is an enzyme involved to the pentose phosphate pathway. It produces NADPH, which is essential for glutathione regeneration. 

People with G6PD deficiency has not enough G6PD to regenerate glutathione. Lack of NADPH and glutathione cannot neutralize the reactive oxygen species (ROS) and hydrogen peroxide (H2O2). This will leads to RBC damage and premature destruction (hemolysis). 

Antimalarial drugs such as primaquine generate ROS and H2O2. The oxidative stress damages RBC membrane and denatures the haemoglobin. Haemolysis occurs leading to haemolytic anemia. 





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